Aspire with Dr. Ram IAS Weekly Current Affairs Model Test for Prelims 1st Week- March 2026 0% 5 1st week - March-2026 -Model Test for Prelims - Model Test 1 / 25 1. With reference to Treasury Bills in India, consider the following statements: They are zero-coupon securities. They are issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the State Governments. They are eligible for the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) requirements of banks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 2 / 25 2. Which of the following instruments is issued by corporate entities to meet short-term working capital requirements? A) Treasury Bills B) Certificates of Deposit C) Commercial Papers D) Cash Management Bills 3 / 25 3. With reference to the Call Money Market in India, consider the following statements: It is an inter-bank market. Funds can be borrowed for a maximum period of one year. The interest rate in this market closely tracks the repo rate. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 4 / 25 4. Consider the following pairs: Certificates of Deposit 1989 Commercial Papers 1990 Cash Management Bills 2009 Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1, 2 and 3 D) 1 only 5 / 25 5. In the context of monetary policy, which one of the following best describes a “Reverse Repo”? A) RBI lends money to banks against government securities B) Banks lend money to the RBI against government securities C) RBI purchases corporate bonds from banks D) Banks issue Treasury Bills to the RBI 6 / 25 6. With reference to soil pollution, consider the following statements: Excessive use of chemical fertilisers increases soil salinity and alkalinity. Chlorohydrocarbon pesticides like DDT undergo biomagnification. Acid rain has no impact on soil chemistry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 7 / 25 7. Which of the following best describes “leaching” in the context of solid waste management? A) Burning of solid waste at high temperature B) Seepage of contaminated liquid from landfills into groundwater C) Conversion of waste into compost using earthworms D) Segregation of recyclable waste at source 8 / 25 8. Which of the following conventions primarily aims to regulate the transboundary movement of hazardous waste? A) Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants B) Basel Convention C) Rotterdam Convention D) Montreal Protocol 9 / 25 9. Consider the following substances often found in electronic waste: Lead Cadmium Chromium VI Heptachlor Which of the above are commonly associated with e-waste toxicity? A) 1, 2 and 3 only B) 1 and 4 only C) 2 and 4 only D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 10 / 25 10. Which of the following waste treatment methods involves the decomposition of organic waste in the presence of oxygen? A) Incineration B) Pyrolysis C) Composting D) Landfilling 11 / 25 11. With reference to the political causes of the Revolt of 1857, consider the following statements: Lord Dalhousie introduced the Doctrine of Lapse. The annexation of Awadh was justified by the British on grounds of misgovernance. The Mughal Emperor was promised the continuation of his dynasty in the Red Fort after his death. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 12 / 25 12. Which one of the following events is regarded as the immediate cause of the Revolt of 1857? A) Annexation of Jhansi B) Introduction of Enfield Rifle cartridges C) Abolition of Sati D) Permanent Settlement 13 / 25 13. Consider the following pairs: Rani Lakshmibai Jhansi Nana Saheb Kanpur Kunwar Singh Bihar Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1, 2 and 3 D) 1 only 14 / 25 14. Which of the following were consequences of the Revolt of 1857? Abolition of the East India Company’s rule. Introduction of the Government of India Act, 1858. Continuation of the Doctrine of Lapse policy. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 15 / 25 15. Which of the following factors contributed to the failure of the Revolt of 1857? Lack of unified leadership. Limited geographical spread. Support of many Indian princes for the British. Select the correct answer using the code below: A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 16 / 25 16. With reference to Badland Topography, consider the following statements: It is formed due to intensive gully and ravine erosion. It is typically associated with humid climatic regions. The Chambal region in India is a classic example. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 17 / 25 17. In desert geomorphology, the term ‘Yardang’ refers to: A) Crescent-shaped sand dune B) Streamlined ridge formed parallel to prevailing wind direction C) Isolated residual hill rising abruptly from a plain D) Hollow formed due to wind deflation 18 / 25 18. Consider the following statements regarding Playas: They are temporary lakes formed in bolsons. Salt-covered playas are known as salinas. They are formed due to glacial deposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 19 / 25 19. In arid geomorphology, ‘Bajada’ refers to: A) Rock-cut surface at the foot of the mountains B) Crescent-shaped mobile dune C) Coalesced alluvial fans forming a depositional plain D) Wind-eroded mushroom-shaped rock 20 / 25 20. Which of the following dunes are correctly matched with their shapes? Barchan – Crescent-shaped Parabolic – U-shaped Star dune – High central peak with radiating arms Longitudinal dune – Perpendicular to wind direction Select the correct answer: A) 1, 2 and 3 only B) 1 and 4 only C) 2, 3 and 4 only D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 21 / 25 21. With reference to the Attorney General of India, consider the following statements: He must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court. He holds office for a fixed term of five years. He has the right to speak in both Houses of Parliament but has no right to vote. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 3 only B) 2 only C) 1 only D) 1, 2 and 3 22 / 25 22. Which of the following rights are available to the Attorney General of India? Right of audience in all courts in India Right to vote in the Lok Sabha Right to participate in proceedings of Parliamentary Committees Select the correct answer: A) 1 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 23 / 25 23. Consider the following statements regarding the Attorney General of India: The Constitution specifies the procedure and grounds for his removal. He is not barred from private legal practice. He is a member of the Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 2 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2 and 3 24 / 25 24. Which one of the following statements correctly distinguishes the Attorney General of India from the Solicitor General of India? A) Only the Attorney General is a constitutional post. B) Only the Solicitor General has the right to participate in Parliament. C) The President appoints the Solicitor General under the Constitution D) Both posts are mentioned under Article 76. 25 / 25 25. With reference to the Advocate General of a State, consider the following statements: He is appointed by the Governor of the State. He must be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court. He holds office during the pleasure of the President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 only D) 1, 2 and 3 Your score isThe average score is 31% 0% Restart quiz Share this: Share on Facebook (Opens in new window) Facebook Share on X (Opens in new window) X