Dr. Ram Prasath Manohar IAS

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Weekly Current Affairs Model Test for Prelims

3rd Week- February 2026

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3rd Week- February 2026​ - Current Affairs- Model Test

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1.  Consider the following statements regarding inflation:

I. Inflation refers to a sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services
II. Deflation refers to a temporary fall in the prices of a few commodities
III. Inflation indicates a decrease in the purchasing power of currency
IV. Inflation is always harmful for economic growth

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2. Consider the following statements regarding demand-pull inflation:

I. It occurs when aggregate demand exceeds aggregate supply
II. Excess money supply in the economy may cause it
III. It is caused only by an increase in wages
IV. An increase in exports can contribute to it

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3. Consider the following statements regarding cost-push inflation:

I. It may arise due to an increase in crude oil prices
II. It can be caused by a shortage of factors of production
III. It results from excessive aggregate demand
IV. Hoarding can contribute to it

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4. Consider the following statements regarding inflation measurement in India:

I. Consumer Price Index measures retail-level price changes
II. Wholesale Price Index includes services
III. CPI is used for inflation targeting by the RBI
IV. Both CPI and WPI are used to measure inflation in India

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5. Consider the following statements regarding inflation targeting in India:

I. The inflation target is 4 per cent with a tolerance band of 2 per cent to 6 per cent
II. The Monetary Policy Committee of the RBI is responsible for controlling inflation
III. Inflation targeting mainly aims at price stability
IV. Inflation targeting can completely eliminate supply-side bottlenecks

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6.  Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of the Chief Minister:

I. The Constitution prescribes a detailed procedure for the appointment of the Chief Minister
II. The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor
III. In a hung assembly, the Governor may exercise discretion in appointing the Chief Minister
IV. The Chief Minister must prove a majority before being appointed

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7. Consider the following statements regarding the tenure of the Chief Minister:

I. The tenure of the Chief Minister is fixed at five years
II. The Chief Minister holds office during the pleasure of the Governor
III. The Chief Minister cannot be dismissed as long as he/she enjoys majority support in the Legislative Assembly
IV. Loss of majority in the Assembly requires the Chief Minister to resign

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8. Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Chief Minister in relation to the Council of Ministers:

I. The Governor appoints ministers only on the advice of the Chief Minister
II. The Chief Minister allocates and reshuffles portfolios
III. The resignation of any minister leads to the dissolution of the entire Council of Ministers
IV. The resignation of the Chief Minister leads to the dissolution of the Council of Ministers

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9. Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional duties of the Chief Minister:

I. It is the duty of the Chief Minister to communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers to the Governor
II. The Chief Minister must furnish information relating to administration when sought by the Governor
III. The advice tendered by ministers to the Governor can be questioned in a court of law
IV. The Chief Minister must submit for consideration of the Council any matter decided by a minister but not considered by the Council if required by the Governor

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10. Consider the following statements regarding the Council of Ministers in a State:

I. The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly
II. The minimum number of ministers in a State shall not be less than 12
III. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Council
IV. A person disqualified under the Tenth Schedule cannot be appointed as a minister

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11. Consider the following statements regarding the Anglo-Nepalese War (1814–16):

I. It was fought between the British East India Company and the Kingdom of Nepal
II. The war ended with the Treaty of Sugauli
III. Nepal ceded Garhwal and Kumaon to the British
IV. Nepal agreed to accept a British Resident at Kathmandu

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12. Which of the following battles were fought during the Anglo-Nepalese War?

I. Battle of Almora
II. Battle of Malaon
III. Battle of Makwanpur
IV. Battle of Plassey

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13. Q13. With reference to the Treaty of Sugauli (1816), consider the following statements:

I. Nepal lost the Terai region to the British
II. The north-west frontier of the Company was pushed up to the Himalayas
III. Nepal was allowed to maintain diplomatic relations with all European powers
IV. A British Resident was stationed at Kathmandu

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14. Consider the following statements regarding the causes of the Anglo-Nepalese War:

I. Border disputes between the Company and Nepal
II. Expansionist policies of both the British and the Gorkhas
III. British desire to secure the Himalayan frontier
IV. Nepal’s alliance with the French against the British

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15. With reference to the Gurkhas after the Anglo-Nepalese War, consider the following statements:

I. The British began recruiting Gurkhas into their army
II. Nepal remained neutral during the Revolt of 1857
III. Gurkhas formed an important component of British Indian forces
IV. Nepal became a direct province of the British Empire

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16. Consider the following statements regarding Dissolved Oxygen (DO) in water:

I. Water having a DO content below 8 mg/L may be considered contaminated
II. Water having a DO content below 4 mg/L is considered highly polluted
III. Higher organic waste increases DO levels in water
IV. DO is essential for the survival of aquatic organisms

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17. With reference to Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD), consider the following statements:

I. It measures the amount of oxygen required by bacteria to decompose organic matter
II. High BOD indicates high dissolved oxygen in water
III. It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per litre
IV. It measures both biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances

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18. Which of the following are consequences of eutrophication?

I. Algal bloom
II. Oxygen depletion in water bodies
III. Increased biodiversity of fish species
IV. Formation of dead zones

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19. Which of the following pollutants are correctly matched with their associated diseases?

I. Mercury — Minamata disease
II. Cadmium — Itai-itai disease
III. Nitrates — Blue baby syndrome
IV. Fluoride — Skeletal fluorosis

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20. Consider the following statements regarding thermal pollution:

I. It is caused by the discharge of hot water from power plants
II. It increases dissolved oxygen content in water
III. A sudden rise in temperature can kill aquatic organisms
IV. Cooling ponds can help reduce thermal pollution

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21. Consider the following statements regarding ox-bow lakes:

  1. They are formed due to deposition along the inner banks of meanders.
  2. They are cut-off meanders formed due to river avulsion.
  3. They are more common in the lower course of rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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22. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. Natural levees — Formed by lateral erosion
  2. Floodplains — Formed by vertical erosion
  3. Alluvial fans — Formed when river velocity decreases abruptly

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23. Consider the following landforms:

  1. V-shaped valleys
  2. River terraces
  3. Deltas

Which of the above is/are typically associated with the youthful stage of a river?

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24. Which of the following conditions favours the formation of a delta?

  1. Strong tidal currents
  2. Shallow continental shelf
  3. Large sediment load
  4. Weak wave action

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25. Braided rivers are generally associated with:

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