Aspire with Dr. Ram IAS Weekly Current Affairs Model Test for Prelims 3rd Week- February 2026 0% 6 3rd Week- February 2026 - Current Affairs- Model Test 1 / 25 1. Consider the following statements regarding inflation: I. Inflation refers to a sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services II. Deflation refers to a temporary fall in the prices of a few commodities III. Inflation indicates a decrease in the purchasing power of currency IV. Inflation is always harmful for economic growth Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and III only B) I, II, and III only C) II and IV only D) I, II, III, and IV 2 / 25 2. Consider the following statements regarding demand-pull inflation: I. It occurs when aggregate demand exceeds aggregate supply II. Excess money supply in the economy may cause it III. It is caused only by an increase in wages IV. An increase in exports can contribute to it Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and II only B) I, II, and IV only C) II and III only D) I, II, III, and IV 3 / 25 3. Consider the following statements regarding cost-push inflation: I. It may arise due to an increase in crude oil prices II. It can be caused by a shortage of factors of production III. It results from excessive aggregate demand IV. Hoarding can contribute to it Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and II only B) I, II, and IV only C) III and IV only D) I, II, III, and IV 4 / 25 4. Consider the following statements regarding inflation measurement in India: I. Consumer Price Index measures retail-level price changes II. Wholesale Price Index includes services III. CPI is used for inflation targeting by the RBI IV. Both CPI and WPI are used to measure inflation in India Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and II only B) I, III, and IV only C) II and IV only D) I, II, III, and IV 5 / 25 5. Consider the following statements regarding inflation targeting in India: I. The inflation target is 4 per cent with a tolerance band of 2 per cent to 6 per cent II. The Monetary Policy Committee of the RBI is responsible for controlling inflation III. Inflation targeting mainly aims at price stability IV. Inflation targeting can completely eliminate supply-side bottlenecks Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and II only B) I, II, and III only C) II, III, and IV only D) I, II, III, and IV 6 / 25 6. Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of the Chief Minister: I. The Constitution prescribes a detailed procedure for the appointment of the Chief Minister II. The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor III. In a hung assembly, the Governor may exercise discretion in appointing the Chief Minister IV. The Chief Minister must prove a majority before being appointed Select the correct answer using the code below: A) II and III only B) I and IV only C) II, III, and IV only D) I, II, and III only 7 / 25 7. Consider the following statements regarding the tenure of the Chief Minister: I. The tenure of the Chief Minister is fixed at five years II. The Chief Minister holds office during the pleasure of the Governor III. The Chief Minister cannot be dismissed as long as he/she enjoys majority support in the Legislative Assembly IV. Loss of majority in the Assembly requires the Chief Minister to resign Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and II only B) II, III, and IV only C) I, III, and IV only D) I, II, III, and IV 8 / 25 8. Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Chief Minister in relation to the Council of Ministers: I. The Governor appoints ministers only on the advice of the Chief Minister II. The Chief Minister allocates and reshuffles portfolios III. The resignation of any minister leads to the dissolution of the entire Council of Ministers IV. The resignation of the Chief Minister leads to the dissolution of the Council of Ministers Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and II only B) I, II, and IV only C) II and III only D) I, II, III, and IV 9 / 25 9. Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional duties of the Chief Minister: I. It is the duty of the Chief Minister to communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers to the Governor II. The Chief Minister must furnish information relating to administration when sought by the Governor III. The advice tendered by ministers to the Governor can be questioned in a court of law IV. The Chief Minister must submit for consideration of the Council any matter decided by a minister but not considered by the Council if required by the Governor Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and II only B) I, II, and IV only C) III and IV only D) I, II, III, and IV 10 / 25 10. Consider the following statements regarding the Council of Ministers in a State: I. The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, shall not exceed 15 per cent of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly II. The minimum number of ministers in a State shall not be less than 12 III. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Council IV. A person disqualified under the Tenth Schedule cannot be appointed as a minister Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and II only B) I, II, and IV only C) II and III only D) I, II, III, and IV 11 / 25 11. Consider the following statements regarding the Anglo-Nepalese War (1814–16): I. It was fought between the British East India Company and the Kingdom of Nepal II. The war ended with the Treaty of Sugauli III. Nepal ceded Garhwal and Kumaon to the British IV. Nepal agreed to accept a British Resident at Kathmandu Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I, II, and III only B) I, II, III, and IV C) II and IV only D) I and III only 12 / 25 12. Which of the following battles were fought during the Anglo-Nepalese War? I. Battle of Almora II. Battle of Malaon III. Battle of Makwanpur IV. Battle of Plassey Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and IV only B) II and III only C) I, II, and III only D) I, II, III, and IV 13 / 25 13. Q13. With reference to the Treaty of Sugauli (1816), consider the following statements: I. Nepal lost the Terai region to the British II. The north-west frontier of the Company was pushed up to the Himalayas III. Nepal was allowed to maintain diplomatic relations with all European powers IV. A British Resident was stationed at Kathmandu Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and III only B) I, II, and IV only C) II and IV only D) I, II, III, and IV 14 / 25 14. Consider the following statements regarding the causes of the Anglo-Nepalese War: I. Border disputes between the Company and Nepal II. Expansionist policies of both the British and the Gorkhas III. British desire to secure the Himalayan frontier IV. Nepal’s alliance with the French against the British Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and II only B) I, II, and III only C) III and IV only D) I, II, III, and IV 15 / 25 15. With reference to the Gurkhas after the Anglo-Nepalese War, consider the following statements: I. The British began recruiting Gurkhas into their army II. Nepal remained neutral during the Revolt of 1857 III. Gurkhas formed an important component of British Indian forces IV. Nepal became a direct province of the British Empire Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and II only B) I, II, and III only C) II and IV only D) I, II, III, and IV 16 / 25 16. Consider the following statements regarding Dissolved Oxygen (DO) in water: I. Water having a DO content below 8 mg/L may be considered contaminated II. Water having a DO content below 4 mg/L is considered highly polluted III. Higher organic waste increases DO levels in water IV. DO is essential for the survival of aquatic organisms Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I, II, and IV only B) I and III only C) II and III only D) I, II, III, and IV 17 / 25 17. With reference to Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD), consider the following statements: I. It measures the amount of oxygen required by bacteria to decompose organic matter II. High BOD indicates high dissolved oxygen in water III. It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per litre IV. It measures both biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and III only B) I, II, and IV only C) II and IV only D) I, III, and IV only 18 / 25 18. Which of the following are consequences of eutrophication? I. Algal bloom II. Oxygen depletion in water bodies III. Increased biodiversity of fish species IV. Formation of dead zones Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and II only B) I, II, and IV only C) II and III only D) I, II, III, and IV 19 / 25 19. Which of the following pollutants are correctly matched with their associated diseases? I. Mercury — Minamata disease II. Cadmium — Itai-itai disease III. Nitrates — Blue baby syndrome IV. Fluoride — Skeletal fluorosis Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and II only B) I, II, and III only C) I, II, III, and IV D) II and IV only 20 / 25 20. Consider the following statements regarding thermal pollution: I. It is caused by the discharge of hot water from power plants II. It increases dissolved oxygen content in water III. A sudden rise in temperature can kill aquatic organisms IV. Cooling ponds can help reduce thermal pollution Select the correct answer using the code below: A) I and III only B) I, III, and IV only C) II and IV only D) I, II, III, and IV 21 / 25 21. Consider the following statements regarding ox-bow lakes: They are formed due to deposition along the inner banks of meanders. They are cut-off meanders formed due to river avulsion. They are more common in the lower course of rivers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 3 only B) 2 only C) 1, 2, and 3 D) 3 only 22 / 25 22. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? Natural levees — Formed by lateral erosion Floodplains — Formed by vertical erosion Alluvial fans — Formed when river velocity decreases abruptly Select the correct answer using the code below: A) 1 and 2 only B) 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 23 / 25 23. Consider the following landforms: V-shaped valleys River terraces Deltas Which of the above is/are typically associated with the youthful stage of a river? A) 1 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 3 only 24 / 25 24. Which of the following conditions favours the formation of a delta? Strong tidal currents Shallow continental shelf Large sediment load Weak wave action Select the correct answer using the code below: A) 2, 3, and 4 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 3 and 4 only D) 1, 2, 3, and 4 25 / 25 25. Braided rivers are generally associated with: A) Low sediment load and high discharge B) Steep gradient and high sediment load C) Meandering pattern in the lower course D) Dominance of vertical erosion Your score isThe average score is 48% 0% Restart quiz Share this: Share on Facebook (Opens in new window) Facebook Share on X (Opens in new window) X