Aspire with Dr. Ram IAS Weekly Current Affairs Model Test for Prelims 4th Week- February 2026 0% 3 4th Week- February 2026 - Current Affairs- Model Test 1 / 25 1. Consider the following statements regarding ionizing radiation: It has sufficient energy to remove electrons from atoms. It includes gamma rays and X-rays. It has lower penetration power compared to non-ionizing radiation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 only D) 1, 2, and 3 2 / 25 2. With reference to radioactive particles, consider the following: Alpha particles can be stopped by a sheet of paper. Beta particles have higher penetration power than gamma rays. Gamma rays require thick concrete for shielding. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 3 only B) 1 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 3 / 25 3. Which of the following are natural sources of radiation? Cosmic rays Uranium-238 Thorium-232 Nuclear weapon testing Select the correct answer using the code below: A) 1 and 4 only B) 1, 2, and 3 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, 3, and 4 4 / 25 4. Non-ionizing radiation differs from ionizing radiation because it: A) Has a shorter wavelength and higher energy B) Cannot cause excitation of atoms C) Cannot remove electrons from atoms D) Has higher penetration power 5 / 25 5. Which of the following are long-term effects of ionizing radiation exposure? Genetic mutations Increased incidence of cancer Cataract formation Developmental abnormalities Select the correct answer using the code below: A) 1 and 2 only B) 1, 2, and 4 only C) 1, 2, 3, and 4 D) 2 and 3 only 6 / 25 6. With reference to the Paika Rebellion of 1817, consider the following statements: It took place in Odisha. It was led by Bakshi Jagabandhu. It was primarily a tribal revolt against forest laws. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 7 / 25 7. The Santhal Rebellion (1855–56) was mainly directed against: A) Introduction of Subsidiary Alliance B) Exploitation by zamindars and moneylenders C) Forced conversion by missionaries D) Annexation under the Doctrine of Lapse 8 / 25 8. The Vellore Mutiny of 1806 is significant because: A) It was the first large-scale tribal uprising B) It led to the abolition of Permanent Settlement C) It was the first sepoy mutiny against the British D) It resulted in the end of the Company rule 9 / 25 9. Consider the following pairs: Uprising Region 1. Chuar Rebellion Bengal 2. Poligar Rebellion Tamil Nadu 3. Kol Uprising Assam Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 only D) 1, 2, and 3 10 / 25 10. Which one of the following uprisings is considered an early precursor to the Revolt of 1857? A) Ahom Revolt B) Moplah Rebellion C) Paika Rebellion D) Chuar Rebellion 11 / 25 11. With reference to Scheduled Banks in India, consider the following statements: They are listed in the Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. They are eligible for refinancing facilities from the RBI. They are not required to maintain the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 12 / 25 12. Which of the following institutions was created primarily to provide refinance support for agriculture and rural development? A) EXIM Bank B) NABARD C) SIDBI D) RBI 13 / 25 13. Consider the following statements regarding credit creation by commercial banks: Commercial banks can print currency notes. Credit creation depends on the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). The money multiplier is inversely related to CRR. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 2 and 3 only B) 1 and 2 only C) 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 14 / 25 14. Which of the following correctly distinguishes Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)? A) Fully owned by State Governments B) Joint ownership of Centre, Stat,e and Sponsor Bank C) Privately owned banks operating in rural areas D) Foreign banks operating in rural India 15 / 25 15. With reference to non-scheduled banks in India, consider the following statements: They are not included in the Second Schedule of the RBI Act, 1934. They are automatically members of the clearinghouse. They generally have a smaller capital base. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 3 only B) 1 only C) 2 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 16 / 25 16. With reference to glacial erosional landforms, consider the following statements: A cirque is a bowl-shaped depression with steep sides on three sides. A horn is formed when glacial erosion acts on a mountain from three or more sides. A glacial trough has a ‘V’-shaped profile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 17 / 25 17. Which of the following landforms is formed primarily due to deposition by sub-glacial streams? A) Drumlin B) Esker C) Arete D) Hanging valley 18 / 25 18. Consider the following pairs: Landform Process 1. Arete Erosion 2. Moraine Deposition 3. Kettle hole Erosion Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 only D) 1, 2, and 3 19 / 25 19. A fjord is best described as: A) A narrow ridge between two cirques B) A drowned glacial valley with steep sides C) A depositional mound formed at the glacier base D) A bowl-shaped depression at high altitude 20 / 25 20. With reference to the glacial cycle of erosion, which of the following is characteristic of the stage of maturity? A) Only cirque formation B) Development of hanging valleys C) Formation of outwash plains D) Complete disappearance of glaciers 21 / 25 21. With reference to the State Legislature, consider the following statements: The Governor is a part of the State Legislature. All States in India have a bicameral legislature. The creation or abolition of a Legislative Council requires a resolution of the State Legislative Assembly and an Act of Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 3 only B) 2 only C) 1 only D) 1, 2, and 3 22 / 25 22. Consider the following regarding the Legislative Council in a State: It is a permanent body. One-third of its members retire every two years. It can reject a Money Bill passed by the Legislative Assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 only C) 1, 2, and 3 D) 1 only 23 / 25 23. Under the Constitution of India, a person shall be disqualified for being a member of a State Legislature if: He holds an office of profit under the government. He is an undischarged insolvent. He has been detained under a preventive detention law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 and 3 only C) 1 only D) 1, 2, and 3 24 / 25 24. The question of disqualification of a member of a State Legislature on the ground of defection is decided by: A) The Governor B) The Election Commission of India C) The Speaker or Chairman of the concerned House D) The High Court 25 / 25 25. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State, consider the following statements: The minimum age to become a member is 25 years. Its normal term is five years unless dissolved earlier. It is not subject to dissolution during a National Emergency. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A) 1 and 2 only B) 2 only C) 1 and 3 only D) 1, 2, and 3 Your score isThe average score is 27% 0% Restart quiz Share this: Share on Facebook (Opens in new window) Facebook Share on X (Opens in new window) X